So what's unclear about this one, about potential biological factors impacting divorce rate? It cites and challenges a woo (that only sociological factors contribute to a divorce rate). It would seem to have a definitive answer (potential biological factors, or evidence to show only sociological factors contribute and the woo has merit).
Aside from the one answer the comments have indicated, without citation, that the 60s changed everything and that explains it. Or, again uncited, the one EXAMPLE I gave couldn't possibly be right, so the whole question should be ignored.
How do I make it better in order to get some answers?
UPDATE: The question was closed, not surprisingly based on the feedback of some high-rep users. There is a sample answer I placed in there, along the lines of what I was originally looking for. See if an answer of that type is unreasonable from the original question. Maybe I'll ask about individual aspects of my answer later.
The vehement and instant support of the sociology-only explanation for divorce caught me a bit off guard on this Skeptics site, I must admit.