There is a question about whether Israel "stole" land:
I propose to close this question as off-topic, but (at the time of writing) 28 people have upvoted it (and 4 downvoted). I try use mod powers to enforce community standards, not go against them, so I am being a little less bold than I normally would to get people's opinions.
Two answers have been provided to the question. One has been deleted by a mod. (That decision has been contested and has been discussed in a chat room.)
I think the both the answers are flawed and are more opinionated than definitive. I think the reason they are flawed is because the question poses a false premise that encourages this.
It starts with a definition of stealing that applies to individuals within local jurisdictions, and tries to apply to to countries, as though one person stealing a laptop that belonged to another was directly analogous to the behaviour of countries fighting over land.
Countries are not the same as individuals, and are not subject to the same sorts of laws. The population of Israeli Jews today are not the same people nor persons as the Jews of 1897, or the Jews of 1000AD. Ownership of land does not pass between countries in the same way the ownership of a laptop passes between people. The analogy is faulty.
Asking who "stole" land is inviting opinionated answers - we shouldn't be surprised that the answer is getting them.
I propose to close the question, and would like to hear what others think given it has attracted attention.