Why was it re-opened? It seems to have
no notable claim evidence at all (and any notable knowledge on the subject is 100% contradictory to the claim, what with "cut of thieves' hands" being an extremely well known thing for Islam and Arabic countries).
and to boot,
is unclear what's being asked and/or too broad (is it asking about correllation or causation? Muslim immigrants living in poor communities, Muslims living in poor Muslim countries or Muslims living in rich Muslim countries?)
Based on current comments, it seems that it was previously validly closed and then reopened, for some reason.