My Question "Is an anti-Muslim backlash an explicit policy goal of ISIS?" is on hold as of now.
The story so far: I asked the question in a similar form, it was put on hold as too broad (or so). After an edit by me to narrow the scope and another edit by @Oddthinking to include more sources for notability it was opened again.
To be closed a few hours or half a day later by Sklivvz. The boilerplate text used is "appears not to be about scientific skepticism", Sklivvz reasons given in a comment are
I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is about motivations, which are non factual -- or it is about a non notable claim.
everyone seems to claim that the intent of Isis is to divide people. This claim is not suitable for Skeptics. No one seems to claim that it's an explicit claim by Isis, which makes this second claim not notable.
(conserved here for when the comments are removed)
I was also asked to remove everything but the claim to be checked (is this text by ISIS representative?), which I won't do because there's not much fluff to the question anyway ("everything but the claim" is one paragraph) and I find it neccessary and helpful to have a bit context. For this reasonk oddthinkings edit is great, I don't want to roll back.
Anyway, I see no point to argue this with one person (who does not appear to have read the question carefully) in the comments, so I bring up the issue here.
The question in the form I want answered (that wont cram into the title) is:
Is this plan - to recruit disenfranchised Muslims by first triggering an over-reaction against Muslims from the West - representative of stated ISIS policy goals, or this an odd outlier?