My question is motivated by questions such as:
To me (and this is where I'm looking for correction and/or clarification) it seems as if this would be impossible to confirm or debunk without defining either
An acceptable range that is defined as being "in proportion" or within normal limits.
For example, a bag of skittles is expected to contain an average of 56 pieces of candy(1), and close to 20% of each of the five colors. A variation is expected because the bags are machine filled based on the weight of each color(2), which can vary due to dyes and other factors.
Based on this data it is possible to define a proportionate range of color distribution, such that 50% of a single color would qualify as disproportionate.
An explicit definition of what is considered disproportionate. Drawing from the same example above, let's take two hypothetical questions:
- "Is it true that bags of Skittles contain a disproportionate amount of red skittles?"
- "Is it true that bags of Skittles contain a disproportionate amount (>50% by count) of blue skittles?"
The first is subjective because the phrase "disproportionate amount" is open to interpretation.
The motivating questions listed above contain neither 1 or 2, and as a result for at least one answer it is implied that the norm is supposed to be correlate with the sub-group's overall percentage of the population, but that is speculation.
I'm not looking to go on a revision spree on skeptics, but I do think this discussion would produce better answers on the site overall, and possibly serve as a precedent moving forward.